PY 101-008 Exam II Practice Test

Name:

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Pavlov found that meat powder placed on a dog's tongue will make the dog salivate. In Pavlov's terms, the meat powder is

a.	an unconditioned stimulus
b.	an unconditioned response
c.	a conditioned stimulus
d.	a conditioned response

Floyd had been working at Qualton Enterprises for 2 years when his boss asked to see him in her office. He thought she wanted to talk about a promotion so he was quite excited, but instead of giving him a promotion, the boss told Floyd he was being laid off as a result of company downsizing. Floyd could feel his heart pounding as he listened to the news. Floyd has a new job now, but every time his new boss asks to talk to him in private, Floyd feels a little faint. In this example, Floyd's new boss asking for a private talk is

a.	an unconditioned response
b.	a conditioned response
c.	an unconditioned stimulus
d.	a conditioned stimulus

Charity used to really enjoy potato salad, and at a family reunion she ate a large helping. Unfortunately, the potato salad had not been kept cold, and Charity became quite ill after eating it. Now she finds that even the sight of potatoes in the grocery store can make her feel sick to her stomach. In this example, the sick feeling Charity experiences when she sees potatoes in the grocery store is

a.	an unconditioned response
b.	a conditioned response
c.	an unconditioned stimulus
d.	a conditioned stimulus

Researchers have found that animals show evidence of classical conditioning if they are injected with a drug that chemically causes immunosuppression, while they are simultaneously drinking an unusual-tasting liquid. In these studies, the conditioned response would be

a.	the immunosuppression
b.	the taste of the liquid that is used
c.	the injection of the drug
d.	fear of the injection process

The study by Domjan et al. (1988), which investigated the adaptive significance of sexual conditioning, may shed some light on

a.	how erectile dysfunction may develop in humans
b.	why some species fail to reproduce and become extinct
c.	how sexual fetishes develop in humans
d.	the evolutionary causes in infertility in humans

The continued presentation of the CS without the UCS will result in the gradual disappearance of the CR. This phenomenon is known as

a.	extinction
b.	inhibition
c.	suppression
d.	conditioned forgetting

After training one of his dogs to salivate in response to a tone, Pavlov continued to present the tone periodically without the food, with the result that the dog

a.	kept responding at the same intensity, despite extended exposure to the tone alone
b.	stopped responding immediately
c.	initially responded to the tone at an even greater intensity than before
d.	gradually stopped responding to the tone

The general principle governing stimulus generalization in classical conditioning is that generalization is greater when

a.	stimuli are very similar to the original conditioned stimulus
b.	stimuli are very different from the original conditioned stimulus
c.	tactile stimulation is used rather than auditory stimulation
d.	auditory stimulation is used rather than visual stimulation

If a dog salivates to a blue light and not to a yellow light, the dog is showing evidence of

a.	spontaneous recovery
b.	conditioned emotional reactions
c.	stimulus generalization
d.	stimulus discrimination

10.

In classical conditioning, a subject can learn to respond to one CS but not to another similar CS. This is the phenomenon of

a.	extinction
b.	stimulus generalization
c.	conditioned forgetting
d.	stimulus discrimination

11.

Operant conditioning is another name for

a.	classical conditioning
b.	respondent conditioning
c.	instrumental learning
d.	observational learning

12.

You are watching a pigeon pecking a disk in a small chamber. There is a cumulative recorder connected to the disk. While you are watching, the pigeon is pecking at a slow, steady rate. Based on this information, you can predict that the line on the cumulative recorder will

a.	have a steep, upward slope
b.	have a shallow, upward slope
c.	have a shallow, downward slope
d.	have a steep, downward slope

13.

You are watching a cumulative recorder that is connected to a small disk in a chamber. The pigeon has been trained to peck the disk when a red light is turned on, and not to peck the disk when a green light is turned on. Based on this information, you should observe that when the green light is turned on,

a.	the slope of the line on the cumulative recorder will be steeper than when the red light is turned on
b.	the pen on the cumulative recorder will start to move downward
c.	the slope of the line on the cumulative recorder will be shallower than when the red light is turned on
d.	the roll of paper in the cumulative recorder will stop moving

14.

The process of selectively reinforcing responses that are closer and closer approximations of some desired response is called

a.	stimulus discrimination
b.	selection
c.	shaping
d.	step-wise conditioning

15.

Organisms typically continue to make operant responses, even when those responses are no longer reinforced. This continued responding is called

a.	stimulus generalization
b.	reconditioning
c.	higher-order conditioning
d.	resistance to extinction

16.

In general, the longer the delay between a response and reinforcement,

a.	the faster conditioning proceeds
b.	the more effective the reinforcer becomes
c.	the more slowly conditioning proceeds
d.	the more likely it is that stimulus generalization will occur

17.

Raul's parents make certain they thank Raul every time he clears the dishes from the table without being asked. Sadie's parents try to remember to thank Sadie every time she clears the table without being asked, but about half the time they forget. Based on principles of operant conditioning, you should predict that

a.	both children's table clearing will be equally resistant to extinction
b.	Sadie's table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Raul's
c.	Raul's table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Sadie's
d.	Raul will develop stimulus generalization, and Sadie will develop stimulus discrimination

18.

You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat pauses for a long time after each food pellet is delivered, but slowly increases its rate of lever pressing as more time elapses. In this example, the reinforcement schedule that is in place is most likely

a.	a variable-ratio schedule
b.	a fixed-interval schedule
c.	a variable-interval schedule
d.	a fixed-ratio schedule

19.

You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at a slow, steady rate, but it does not stop, even when a food pellet is delivered. In this example, the reinforcement schedule that is in place is most likely

a.	a variable-ratio schedule
b.	a fixed-interval schedule
c.	a variable-interval schedule
d.	a fixed-ratio schedule

20.

A rat is placed on one side of a two-compartment shuttle box. For each trial, a light is turned on and is followed 10 seconds later by a painful electric shock for one minute. The rat can terminate the trial by jumping a barrier into the other compartment. If the rat jumps during the light, it has learned to __________ the shock; if the rat jumps during the shock, it has learned to __________ the shock.

a.	escape; avoid
b.	avoid; escape
c.	escape; escape
d.	avoid; avoid

21.

The evolutionary history of rats has rendered them __________ to associate a taste CS with an illness UCS, and __________ to associate that same CS with an electric shock UCS.

a.	prepared; prepared
b.	prepared; unprepared
c.	unprepared; unprepared
d.	unprepared; prepared

22.

Which of the following most clearly shows that an animal's biological makeup can affect the ease of learning an association?

a.	Pavlov's dogs, bells, and salivation
b.	Thorndike's cats in a puzzle box
c.	Skinner's rats in an operant chamber
d.	Garcia's conditioned taste aversion experiments

23.

Zane has been shocked on six separate occasions while making toast. However, he doesn't seem to have developed a phobia toward toasters. Zane's only phobia is toward spiders, because he once had a big spider fall in his shirt when he was child. Zane's pattern of phobias illustrates the concept of

a.	signal relations
b.	negative avoidance
c.	superstitious responding
d.	preparedness

24.

The evolutionary perspective on learning suggests that

a.	most species respond to classical conditioning, but only mammals show operant conditioning
b.	most species respond to operant conditioning, but only mammals show classical conditioning
c.	differences in the adaptive challenges faced by various species have led to some species-specific learning tendencies
d.	because all species face the same adaptive challenges, species-specific learning tendencies will disappear as a species evolves

25.

Learning that takes place by watching another person is referred to as

a.	operant conditioning
b.	noncontingent learning
c.	observational learning
d.	classical conditioning

26.

After watching his father wash the car, five-year-old Bob washes his bike. This is an example of

a.	superstitious behavior
b.	classical conditioning
c.	observational learning
d.	positive reinforcement

27.

An antecedent in a behavior modification program is

a.	a source of a reinforcement
b.	an event that precedes a behavior
c.	a consequence of performing a behavior
d.	an emotional component associated with the receipt of reinforcement or punishment

28.

Which of the following is NOT a strategy for decreasing the frequency of an undesirable behavior?

a.	positive reinforcement for withholding the response
b.	punishment for making the response
c.	increasing exposure to antecedents of the response
d.	decreasing exposure to antecedents of the response

29.

Stimulus discrimination is to stimulus generalization as reinforcement is to

a.	acquisition
b.	shaping
c.	punishment
d.	resistance

30.

In order for a memory to be stored, it must first be

a.	ablated
b.	modeled
c.	retrieved
d.	encoded

31.

The process of recalling information from memory is referred to as

a.	retrieval
b.	encoding
c.	storage
d.	information registry

32.

A memory code that emphasizes the meaning of verbal input is called

a.	a structural code
b.	a phonemic code
c.	a semantic code
d.	an episodic code

33.

Hugh is studying for his geography test. He is in a hurry, so he focuses on the main points of the text and skips all of the examples that the authors provide to illustrate each main point. In this case, Hugh is using

a.	an efficient study strategy, because examples often cause students to become confused about key issues
b.	chunking to create fewer storage units, and this should aid his later recall of the information
c.	deep processing, which should produce a very durable memory for the material
d.	an ineffective study strategy and will probably not retain many of the main ideas that he reads

34.

Which of the following researchers is known for identifying the capacity of short-term memory as "seven plus or minus two" items?

a.	Richard Atkinson
b.	Hermann Ebbinghaus
c.	George Miller
d.	George Sperling

35.

Jade rearranges the letters HI TRE DBA T into "hit red bat." This is an example of

a.	chunking
b.	elaboration
c.	rehearsal
d.	clustering

36.

The memory system that has an almost unlimited storage capacity is

a.	time-based memory
b.	long-term memory
c.	working memory
d.	auditory sensory memory

37.

Results from the research study that investigated the accuracy of flashbulb memories following the announcement of the verdict in the O.J. Simpson trial suggest that flashbulb memories

a.	remain extremely accurate, even years after the initial event
b.	have special characteristics that make them less vulnerable to forgetting
c.	fade gradually over time, just like other memories
d.	are only created when the triggering events elicit strong emotions

38.

Loftus' work on eyewitness testimony has clearly demonstrated that

a.	memory errors come mostly from erroneous original encoding
b.	most memory errors are constructive
c.	information given after an event can alter a person's memory of the event
d.	most memory errors are simply omissions of details of the event

39.

Joel is asked to provide a description of his neighbor's car, after the car and the neighbor both disappear. He is surprised to find that he really can't accurately recall the make of the car, or any special details that might help in identifying the vehicle. In this case, Joel may be experiencing

a.	proactive interference
b.	retrograde amnesia
c.	pseudoforgetting
d.	cryptomnesia

40.

Imagine that researchers find some memories are lost very quickly from memory, while other memories last much longer. This evidence would create the MOST problems for

a.	the decay theory of forgetting
b.	the interference theory of forgetting
c.	the repression theory of forgetting
d.	the neurochemical theory of forgetting

41.

To be MOST effective, a retrieval cue should be

a.	congruent with the original encoding of material
b.	similar in meaning to the material
c.	similar in sensory appearance to the material
d.	very distinctive in character

42.

Skyler took part in a memory experiment. As he studied a list of words he was to remember, he formed a vivid image of each object on the list. He was confident he would do well on the memory test, but instead of asking for the actual words, they asked Skyler whether each word was printed in italics or bold-faced type. Skyler did poorly on the memory test. Because he did not know how he would be tested, Skyler

a.	showed evidence of retroactive interference
b.	did not use transfer-appropriate processing
c.	experienced repression
d.	experienced the misinformation effect

43.

The concept of motivated forgetting is based largely on the work of which of the following early psychologists?

a.	Hermann Ebbinghaus
b.	Sigmund Freud
c.	John Watson
d.	Wilhelm Wundt

44.

Based on studies of the biochemistry of memory in animals, which of the following conclusions is LEAST accurate?

a.	Hormonal changes can either facilitate or impair memory.
b.	Memories can be chemically transferred from one animal to another.
c.	The administration of drugs that interfere with protein synthesis impairs long-term memory in some animals.
d.	Memory formation may result in alterations in synaptic transmission at specific sites.

45.

The long-lasting increase in neural excitability at synapses of a specific neural pathway is referred to as

a.	spreading cortical activation
b.	long-term potentiation
c.	transfer-appropriate excitation
d.	an engram process

46.

Cory and three friends were having a contest to determine who could draw the back of a five-dollar bill the most accurately, from memory. Cory was confident he would do well because he has a part time job as a cashier and handles small bills all the time. However, Cory's drawing was not very close to the actual features on the back of the bill. His inability to draw this familiar image from memory was likely due to

a.	an implicit memory failure
b.	retroactive interference
c.	proactive interference
d.	a lack of transfer-appropriate encoding

47.

Hayden is explaining the rules of his new computer game to Shane. The information about the rules is being retrieved from Hayden's

a.	prospective memory
b.	declarative memory
c.	procedural memory
d.	implicit memory

48.

Ruben and Maya are describing their recent trip to Brazil. They describe all the interesting things they did while they were there, and all the interesting people that they met. In describing their trip, Ruben and Maya are largely relying on their

a.	semantic memory
b.	procedural memory
c.	episodic memory
d.	prospective memory

49.

Kelly is taking antibiotics for an ear infection, but she finds she often forgets to take the medication when she is supposed to. She has tried leaving the container for the medication in plain view, but she still forgets on occasion. Kelly's difficulty in remembering to take her medication illustrates

a.	proactive interference
b.	pseudoforgetting
c.	anterograde amnesia
d.	a failure in prospective memory

50.

Timothy was planning to tape a special broadcast late on PBS Tuesday night, but he forgot to turn the VCR on before he went to bed that night. Timothy's forgetfulness illustrates

a.	pseudoforgetting
b.	proactive interference
c.	anterograde amnesia
d.	a failure in prospective memory

51.

Dennis is reminiscing about the trip he took with his parents to visit the house where his father grew up. He can still remember the wide front porch with the porch swing and the big trees in the backyard. As Dennis recalls this trip, he is relying on his

a.	retrospective memory
b.	semantic memory
c.	procedural memory
d.	prospective memory

52.

The fact that your memory for a specific event may be influenced by the amount of attention you pay to the event, the level at which you process information about the event, how you organize the information, and the amount of interference you experience reflects which of the following unifying themes of your textbook?

a.	Psychology is empirical.
b.	Behavior is determined by multiple causes.
c.	Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
d.	Our experience of the world is highly subjective.

53.

Overlearning material will

a.	not improve retention
b.	improve retention
c.	improve retention for nonsense syllables, but not much else
d.	result in "burnout"

54.

A good strategy for minimizing interference with retention of course material is to

a.	conduct a last, thorough review of material as close to exam time as possible
b.	engage in massed practice
c.	overlearn the material
d.	spend less time on rote repetition of the material

55.

If you associate a concrete word with a to-be-remembered abstract word, and then generate an image to represent the concrete word, you are using

a.	an acrostic
b.	the link method
c.	the keyword method
d.	a semantic network

56.

The memory improvement strategies of elaboration, using visual imagery, and engaging in deeper processing all involve which memory process?

a.	encoding
b.	storage
c.	retrieval
d.	interference

57.

When we say that language is generative, we mean that

a.	the symbols used in the language are arbitrary
b.	a limited number of symbols can be combined to produce an infinite variety of messages
c.	language is both written and oral
d.	sentences must be structured in a limited number of ways

58.

The fact that language has rules that govern the arrangement of words into phrases and sentences refers to the

a.	generative aspect of language
b.	phonemic aspect of language
c.	continuity aspect of language
d.	structured aspect of language

59.

Which of the following statements is LEAST accurate?

a.	Humans are capable of producing about 100 phonemes.
b.	A letter of the alphabet is represented by more than one phoneme if it has more than one pronunciation.
c.	All languages use all of the phonemes of which humans are capable.
d.	Phonemes are combined into morphemes.

60.

Three-year-old Johnny used to say "mikk" when he wanted a drink of milk. Now he is able to say "milk" quite clearly. In this instance, Johnny has made a gain in his use of

a.	phonemes
b.	syntax
c.	morphemes
d.	linguistic heuristics

61.

Phonemes are the smallest units of __________ in a spoken language; morphemes are the smallest units of __________ in a language.

a.	sound; meaning
b.	sound; syntax
c.	meaning; sound
d.	meaning; syntax

62.

When the word "oat" is changed to the word "boat," the number of

a.	phonemes and morphemes are both increased
b.	phonemes stays the same, but the number of morphemes is increased
c.	phonemes increases, but the number of morphemes stays the same
d.	phonemes decreases, but the number of morphemes increases

63.

Jenna is 14 months old and uses only "bottle, no, up, bye-bye, mama, and dada" when she talks. However, when the family is on their way to visit Jenna's grandmother, and her father tells Jenna to get her blue bunny from the bedroom and bring it with her, Jenna quickly runs to get the bunny. This episode demonstrates that

a.	toddlers' receptive vocabularies are larger than their productive vocabularies
b.	toddlers' productive vocabularies are larger than their receptive vocabularies
c.	infants have difficulty pronouncing phonemes they have never heard
d.	Jenna is able to overextend her current vocabulary

64.

A child who says, "I sawed a cat in the yard," is making which of the following errors?

a.	overextension
b.	underextension
c.	overregularization
d.	underregularization

65.

Dr. Phrasnal is studying cognitive flexibility and selective attention in middle-class bilingual and monolingual subjects. Based on the evidence from previous research studies, Dr. Phrasnal will most likely find that the bilingual subjects score

a.	lower in both cognitive flexibility and selective attention
b.	higher in cognitive flexibility, but lower in selective attention
c.	higher in both cognitive flexibility and selective attention
d.	lower in cognitive flexibility, but higher in selective attention

66.

Results from studies in which researchers have attempted to teach chimpanzees to use non-verbal language (i.e., sign language or communication boards) indicate that

a.	chimpanzees are incapable of acquiring non-verbal communication
b.	some chimpanzees have appeared to learn many words, and have combined words in appropriate ways
c.	chimpanzees are capable of learning language to a level equivalent to that seen in 10-year-old children
d.	chimpanzees can use non-verbal methods to communicate with other chimps, but not with humans

67.

Pinker and Bloom (1992) suggest that human language may be a result of evolutionary processes because language allows humans to

a.	acquire information about the world secondhand
b.	use trial-and-error learning more effectively
c.	avoid heuristic fallacies
d.	engage in more efficient introspection

68.

Of the following, the ones that are NOT considered to be interactionist theories of language acquisition are

a.	linguistic relativity theories
b.	social communication theories
c.	emergentist theories
d.	cognitive theories

69.

Dr. DeGroot believes that children gradually acquire language skills as neural circuits that support language develop within the brain. Dr. DeGroot further believes that these neural circuits will not develop unless children are exposed to appropriate language learning experiences. Dr. DeGroot's views MOST closely mirror those found in

a.	behavioral theories of language acquisition
b.	nativist theories of language acquisition
c.	emergentist theories of language acquisition
d.	social communication theories of language acquisition

70.

Marc loves to solve anagrams, and spends a great deal of time working through books of anagrams. It appears that Marc enjoys problems that require

a.	transformation
b.	inducing structure
c.	analogical reasoning
d.	arrangement

71.

When Quentin sprained his ankle in a backyard softball game, his girlfriend grabbed a bag of frozen corn from the freezer to wrap around his ankle until they got him to the local clinic. In this case, Quentin's girlfriend

a.	effectively utilized the availability heuristic
b.	was able to overcome functional fixedness
c.	demonstrated functional fixedness in treating Quentin's sprained ankle
d.	successfully utilized an elimination-by-aspects strategy

72.

Which of the following statements concerning functional fixedness is MOST accurate?

a.	Compared to young children, older children and adults are less likely to show evidence of functional fixedness.
b.	All age groups are likely to show evidence of functional fixedness, especially when solving problems using unfamiliar objects.
c.	Compared to all other age groups, adolescents are most likely to show evidence of functional fixedness.
d.	Compared to older children and adults, young children are less likely to show evidence of functional fixedness.

73.

Eva just upgraded her software package. However, even though the updated version contains a number of more efficient methods for working with files, Eva continues to work with files the way she did before the upgrade. In this case, Eva is showing evidence of

a.	mental set
b.	belief perseverance
c.	priming
d.	the availability heuristic

74.

An algorithm is

a.	the set of possible pathways to a solution considered by a problem solver
b.	a guiding principle or "rule of thumb" used in problem solving
c.	a methodical procedure for trying all possible solutions to a problem
d.	equivalent to a heuristic

75.

Esmeralda wants to use her roommate's computer to work on her term paper. However, the roommate has password protection on the computer's boot sequence. Rather than starting at "a" and systematically testing every possible word in the English language, Esmeralda makes some educated guesses about the passwords, based on what she knows about her roommate. In this case, Esmeralda is using

a.	a heuristic to get past the password protection
b.	an algorithm to get past the password protection
c.	reframing to get past the password protection
d.	representativeness to get past the password protection

76.

Sean was stranded in the desert after his plane crashed. He has the best chances for survival under these circumstances if his cognitive style is

a.	field independent
b.	risk-averse
c.	field dependent
d.	based on algorithms

77.

Michiko lives in Japan and Krystal, Michiko's pen pal, lives in the United States. Based on the research by Nisbett and his colleagues into cultural differences in cognitive styles, you should predict that when these two friends are solving problems, Michiko will tend to use __________ cognitive style, while Krystal will tend to use __________ cognitive style.

a.	an analytic; a holistic
b.	a field independent; a field dependent
c.	a holistic; an analytic
d.	a heuristic; an algorithmic

78.

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?

a.	Delayed decisions are common when alternatives are not dramatically different in their overall attractiveness.
b.	In reaching a decision, delays almost always lead to better decisions because there is additional time for reflection.
c.	Delay in reaching a decision reduces people's reliance on heuristics, and can help to eliminate the effects of framing.
d.	Additional deliberation in decision-making often leads people to reconsider the attributes that have the most relevance to the final decision.

79.

Jacob is thinking of buying a $1 lottery ticket. In Lottery A, his odds of winning are 1 out of a 1000, and he may win $500. In Lottery B, his odds of winning are 1 out of 5000, but he may win $5000. Based on expected value theory, Jacob should

a.	buy either ticket because both lotteries have the same expected value
b.	buy a ticket from Lottery B because it has a higher expected value
c.	buy a ticket from Lottery A because it has a higher expected value
d.	not buy either ticket because both lotteries have very low odds of winning

80.

The availability heuristic implies that people will __________ the frequency of events that are easy to remember and __________ the frequency of events that are hard to remember.

a.	overestimate; underestimate
b.	underestimate; overestimate
c.	overestimate; overestimate
d.	underestimate; underestimate

81.

Zackary's friend asks how well Zackary gets along with his younger brother. Zackary thinks about how irritating his younger brother was yesterday, and the big fight they had as a result, and tells his friend that he doesn't get along with his brother at all. In this instance, Zackary's response is consistent with

a.	the availability heuristic
b.	the representativeness heuristic
c.	the conjunction fallacy
d.	the hindsight bias

82.

Hiram is not really a sports fan, but he signs up for a fantasy baseball tournament that is being sponsored by the company he works for. In selecting his team, he picks the ten players that he recognizes from 200 that are listed. He is pleasantly surprised when his fantasy team finishes near the top. In this instance, Hiram made his selections using

a.	belief perseverance
b.	the representativeness heuristic
c.	mental set
d.	the recognition heuristic

83.

Overestimating the accuracy of your answer illustrates

a.	the conjunction fallacy
b.	the negative effects of framing
c.	the overconfidence effect
d.	the gambler's fallacy

84.

In light of their views on language acquisition, which theorist would expect apes to progress the furthest in language development?

a.	B. F. Skinner
b.	Noam Chomsky
c.	Jean Piaget
d.	Herb Terrace

85.

Any psychological test should be seen as

a.	measuring the person's typical behavior
b.	tapping the constancies of a person's behavior
c.	a sample of a person's behavior
d.	tapping a person's absolute level of performance

86.

Madisen has just completed a two-year internship with a law firm. She takes a test that is designed to assess her current knowledge of general legal principles. In this case, the test that Madisen takes would be classified as

a.	an intelligence test
b.	an aptitude test
c.	an achievement test
d.	a projective test

87.

Reliability refers to the __________ of a measuring device such as a test.

a.	consistency
b.	predictability
c.	accuracy of inference
d.	representativeness

88.

Conrad's economic professor tells the class that the next exam will cover Chapters 5 though 7 of their text. The day of the exam, the professor accidentally photocopies the exam from the previous semester, which includes a number of questions from Chapters 8 and 9. In this case, the students might reasonably argue that the exam

a.	had poor construct validity
b.	lacked reliability
c.	had been improperly standardized
d.	had poor content validity

89.

For which of the following would it be the MOST difficult to demonstrate validity?

a.	a mechanical aptitude test
b.	a history test
c.	a secretarial aptitude test
d.	a test of creativity

90.

When Charmaine was 10 years old, she completed the original Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. She answered all the questions that a typical six-year-old would answer, but none of the questions a typical seven-year-old would answer. Based on this information, Charmaine's mental age would be

a.	10 years
b.	6 years
c.	8 years
d.	60

91.

Shawna's IQ score was calculated using the formula developed by Lewis Terman, and the result was 92. This indicates that

a.	Shawna's chronological age is greater than her mental age
b.	Shawna's mental age is greater than her chronological age
c.	Shawna's mental age and chronological age are the same
d.	the IQ score calculation was done incorrectly

92.

Most tests using the deviation IQ set the mean at

a.	10 points and the standard deviation at 5 points
b.	50 points and the standard deviation at 10 points
c.	100 points and the standard deviation at 15 points
d.	120 points and the standard deviation at 20 points

93.

Wechsler developed the deviation IQ based on the normal distribution. On his test, an overall IQ of 130 would mean

a.	the person has 130 units of intelligence
b.	the person scored two standard deviations above the mean
c.	the person's MA is 13 and CA is 10
d.	the test score was calculated incorrectly, because 100 is the highest possible score

94.

Maranda tells you that her 12-year-old cousin recently completed an intelligence test that translated raw scores into deviation IQ scores. Maranda knows that her cousin's score was 75, but she is not sure what this means. You should tell her that her cousin

a.	answered 75% of the questions correctly on the test
b.	scored below the mean for 12-year-olds
c.	scored above the mean for 12-year-olds
d.	scored at the mean for the average 9-year-old

95.

IQ scores do NOT routinely increase as we get older because

a.	an IQ score is indicative of our relative standing in our particular age group
b.	we do not accumulate that much more information as we get older
c.	the tests are not designed to measure increases in knowledge as we get older
d.	the tests for adults are not comparable to the tests for children

96.

Although there may be some question as to exactly what IQ tests measure, there is little question that they tend to be consistent measures, that is, they are high in

a.	predictability
b.	validity
c.	generalizability
d.	reliability

97.

In comparison to most other types of psychological tests, IQ tests tend to be

a.	low in reliability
b.	similar in terms of reliability
c.	exceptionally reliable
d.	reliable for children, but unreliable for adults

98.

The person who is sensitive to others' needs and accepts others for who they are is evidencing the __________ type of intelligence.

a.	fluid
b.	practical
c.	verbal
d.	social

99.

Which of the following statements about the influence of culture on the use of IQ tests is MOST accurate?

a.	IQ tests are widely used in virtually all cultures.
b.	Different cultures have different conceptions of what intelligence is.
c.	It is generally accepted across all cultures that it is possible to measure and quantify intellectual ability.
d.	Western IQ tests generally translate well into the language and cognitive framework of non-Western cultures.

100.

Gunnar is 50 years old, and he has only completed the sixth grade when he was in school. For the past 30 years, Gunnar has been a successful fisherman who has five fishing boats. Recently, he took part in an aging study conducted by a university near his home, and he was told that his IQ score was only 65. Based on the definition for mental retardation, provided by the American Association on Mental Retardation, Gunnar

a.	does not meet the definition because he does not show deficits in daily living skills
b.	does not meet the definition because his IQ score is too high
c.	would be classified as having mild mental retardation
d.	would meet the criterion for moderate to severe mental retardation

101.

Of the following, the one that would constitute the strongest evidence for environmental influence in intelligence would be similarity in IQ between

a.	parents and their biological children
b.	identical twins reared together
c.	adopted children and their foster parents
d.	adopted children and their biological parents

102.

The trend known as the Flynn effect

a.	has only been identified in Western cultures
b.	has been documented world-wide
c.	is only evident when minority groups are tested
d.	is generally believed to be a statistical artifact

103.

Araceli has an IQ score of 125. Knowing this fact, you

a.	can conclude that Araceli has been raised in an intellectually enriched environment
b.	can conclude that Araceli is scoring near the top of her intellectual reaction range
c.	cannot draw any conclusions without more information
d.	can conclude that Araceli has a relatively wide intellectual reaction range

104.

Noel is extremely talented in mathematics and science, and he has received numerous scholarships based on his abilities in these areas. However, he just can't seem to catch on in his English classes, no matter how many he takes. Noel is repeating remedial English for the fourth time, and he is still struggling. The theory of intelligence that would have the most difficulty explaining Noel's different levels of performance is

a.	Sternberg's triarchic theory
b.	Thurstone's theory of primary mental abilities
c.	Gardner's theory of multiple intelligence’s
d.	Spearman's g-factor theory

105.

According to Horn, crystallized intelligence is associated with

a.	applying acquired knowledge and skills in problem solving
b.	memory capacity
c.	reasoning ability
d.	creativity

106.

Albert is a computer programmer who has been working for a biotechnology company for five years. When he first started with them, he had some difficulty seeing ways to apply his knowledge to their specialized needs. Today, he is able to easily apply his expertise to novel situations that arise as the company grows and changes. According to Raymond Cattell, Albert's current ability to apply computing principles is an example of his

a.	fluid intelligence
b.	experiential intelligence
c.	crystallized intelligence
d.	inductive intelligence

107.

According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, someone who is able to cope well with new or novel tasks, should score high in

a.	analytic intelligence
b.	creative intelligence
c.	practical intelligence
d.	all three areas of intelligence

108.

According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, someone who is high in practical intelligence should

a.	perform well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning skills
b.	cope well with new or novel tasks
c.	show deficits in the other two areas of cognitive function
d.	be able to solve problems that are unique to the existing cultural surroundings

109.

Cheryl has always performed well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning and logical-mathematical abilities, but she doesn't seem to be able to use her skills to solve common everyday problems. According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, Cheryl shows

a.	high analytical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence
b.	high analytical intelligence, but lower practical intelligence
c.	high practical intelligence, but lower creative intelligence
d.	high practical intelligence, but lower analytical intelligence

110.

Counselor Troi is from the planet Beta-Z. Betazoids are empaths who have the ability to easily infer other people's moods, temperaments, emotions, and intentions. According to Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligence’s, Counselor Troi should score high in

a.	interpersonal intelligence
b.	intrapersonal intelligence
c.	spatial intelligence
d.	bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

111.

Davis is a gifted violinist who has been playing the violin since he was two. He started writing his own music when he was four. However, Davis has a difficult time expressing himself with words, and he struggles with all his written assignments for his classes at school. The theory of intelligence that could best be used to account for Davis' different levels of performance in these areas is

a.	Gardner's theory of multiple intelligence’s
b.	Spearman's g-factor theory
c.	Sternberg's triarchic theory
d.	Thurstone's theory of primary mental abilities

112.

The observed ethnic differences in average intelligence within Western societies best illustrate the importance of which of the following factors?

a.	genetic
b.	cultural
c.	cognitive
d.	evolutionary

113.

Creativity test items that give respondents a starting point and then require them to generate as many possibilities as they can in a short period of time are scored on the basis of

a.	the quantity of alternatives generated
b.	the originality of the alternatives
c.	the usefulness of the alternatives
d.	all of these things

114.

According to your textbook, "intelligence" is best thought of as a

a.	useful abstraction
b.	tangible commodity
c.	score on an IQ test
d.	product of heredity

115.

An internal state of tension that precedes behavior designed to reduce that tension is referred to as a

a.	fugue
b.	drive
c.	need
d.	biostate

116.

Cannon and Washburn (1912) proposed that hunger is caused by

a.	lack of food
b.	stomach contractions
c.	low blood sugar
d.	changes in leptin levels

117.

Based on the interaction between glucose levels and insulin levels in the body, you should expect that laboratory rats with artificially reduced levels of insulin will

a.	tend to overeat and gain weight
b.	stop eating, but still gain weight
c.	stop eating and lose weight
d.	show an increase in activity in the ventromedial hypothalamus

118.

According to set-point theory, the body monitors the

a.	level of fat stores in the body to keep it fairly constant
b.	level of glucose in the bloodstream
c.	basal metabolic rate to keep it constant
d.	activity of the hypothalamus

119.

Set-point theorists propose that people's set point depends on

a.	their bone structure
b.	their activity level
c.	the number of fat cells they possess
d.	their current body weight

120.

The principal gonadal hormones in females are

a.	androgens
b.	teratogens
c.	estrogens
d.	pheromones

121.

Low levels of __________ have been associated with a lowered male sex drive.

a.	catecholamines
b.	pheromones
c.	estrogen
d.	testosterone

122.

In humans, sexual motivation

a.	follows a homeostatic pattern
b.	seems to follow an incentive model more than a drive model
c.	seems to follow a drive model more than an incentive model
d.	is unaffected by changes in internal hormones

123.

Which of the following effects has NOT been supported by research?

a.	Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes.
b.	Viewing erotic materials changes ones attitudes to be more liberal about sexual practices.
c.	Viewing erotic materials may make some people dissatisfied with their own sexual interactions.
d.	Viewing erotic materials elevates the likelihood of overt sexual activity for a few hours immediately after the exposure.

124.

Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?

a.	David Buss
b.	Walter Cannon
c.	Robert Trivers
d.	Stanley Schachter

125.

Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality has NOT been supported by empirical evidence?

a.	In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
b.	There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
c.	Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
d.	Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.

126.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response?

a.	plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
b.	excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
c.	plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
d.	excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm

127.

Alayna and her husband have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. Her level of arousal is still increasing, and she can feel some tightening in her vagina. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Alayna is in the

a.	resolution phase
b.	plateau phase
c.	excitement phase
d.	orgasmic phase

128.

During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate through the pelvic area?

a.	excitatory phase
b.	resolution phase
c.	orgasm phase
d.	phallic phase

129.

Peter and his wife are having sex when Peter's blood pressure increases sharply, and he experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. Based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson,

a.	Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory period
b.	Peter's muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his wife
c.	Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time following his orgasm
d.	Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle

130.

Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her boyfriend kissed and caressed her. However, the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration rate are slowly returning to normal, but she feels a sense of frustration. Based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson, Annette is in the

a.	resolution phase
b.	plateau phase
c.	post-orgasmic phase
d.	refractory period

131.

The Thematic Apperception Test has been used to assess an individual's

a.	arousal level
b.	competence motive
c.	psychocybernetic motive
d.	affiliation motive

132.

The projective test that has been used a great deal to measure affiliation need is the

a.	Thematic Apperception Test
b.	Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test
c.	Sarason Sociability Scale
d.	Rorschach Ink Blot Test

133.

Breana is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Breana focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being away from all the pressures of work and family, and spending quiet time in an isolated location. Breana's answer suggests that she MOST likely has

a.	a low need for achievement
b.	a high need for affiliation
c.	a high need for achievement
d.	a low need for affiliation

134.

Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her tasks. Maria's behavior MOST likely reflects

a.	an external locus of control
b.	a high achievement motivation
c.	a high power need
d.	an obsessive-compulsive personality structure

135.

Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when they were in Bosnia, as part of the peace-keeping force. As she listens to the stories of starvation and ruin, Janie feels overwhelmed by sadness. This reaction is part of the

a.	physiological component in Janie's emotional experience
b.	behavioral component in Janie's emotional experience
c.	cognitive component in Janie's emotional experience
d.	objective component in Janie's emotional experience

136.

Most of the discernible physiological arousal associated with emotion occurs through the actions of the

a.	medulla
b.	forebrain
c.	central nervous system
d.	autonomic nervous system

137.

The GSR is usually considered to be

a.	a measure of conscious emotion
b.	an index of honesty
c.	a measure of the cognitive component of emotion
d.	a general measure of autonomic arousal

138.

A device that measures heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure (i.e., autonomic arousal) is

a.	a polygraph
b.	a galvanic response meter
c.	an electromyocardiograph
d.	an electroencephalograph

139.

Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her employer. Her lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her innocence. She asks you whether she should agree to the test. Based on the research into the accuracy of polygraphs, you should tell Victoria that polygraphs

a.	are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent she will pass with no problem
b.	only measure overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether or not people are lying
c.	sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty, but are 100% accurate in detecting guilt
d.	sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent, but are 100% accurate in detecting innocence

140.

Royce is describing a whitewater rafting trip. As he talks about the raft crashing through rapids, Janie's mouth drops, and she finds she is clutching at the arms of her chair. These reactions are part of the

a.	behavioral component in Janie's emotional experience
b.	cognitive component in Janie's emotional experience
c.	physiological component in Janie's emotional experience
d.	objective component in Janie's emotional experience

141.

The idea that muscles of the face send information to the brain and that this affects the emotion we feel is known as

a.	Schachter's cognitive theory
b.	the James-Lange theory
c.	Darwin's facial expression theory
d.	the facial feedback hypothesis

142.

Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion suggests that we distinguish between the experience of different emotions on the basis of

a.	the type of behavior involved
b.	the type of bodily pattern involved
c.	our interpretation of the situation
d.	the emotional expression of others

143.

Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which of the following explanations best represents Schachter's two-factor theory?

a.	"I'm shaking because I'm afraid."
b.	"I'm afraid because I'm shaking."
c.	"My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire."
d.	"My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation."

144.

According to the Cannon-Bard theory, people look to __________ cues to differentiate and label their emotions; according to Schachter, people look to __________ cues to differentiate and label their emotions.

a.	physiological; situational
b.	physiological; physiological
c.	situational; physiological
d.	situational; situational

145.

Evolutionary theories of emotion assume all but which of the following?

a.	Emotions are largely innate.
b.	Emotions followed thought in the evolutionary sequence.
c.	Emotions originate in subcortical brain structures.
d.	Humans have a relatively small number of innate emotions with adaptive value.

146.

As the three children approached the house that everyone claimed was haunted, Yvette was apprehensive, Mackenzie was afraid, and Jayme was terrified. Robert Plutnik would suggest that these three children were

a.	experiencing different unique secondary emotions
b.	experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion
c.	experiencing different unique primary emotions
d.	each labeling their emotions differently due to differences in experience

147.

The controversies surrounding evolutionary theory, aggressive pornography, and the determinants of sexual orientation are evidence for which of the following unifying themes of your textbook?

a.	Psychology is empirical.
b.	Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c.	Behavior is determined by multiple causes.
d.	Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.

148.

Which of the following variables would be considered the best predictor of happiness?

a.	money
b.	health
c.	personality
d.	intelligence

149.

Fernando and Isabelle are both seniors at Central High, and their school's basketball team just won the divisional championship. Fernando was certain the Central High team would be eliminated early, while Isabelle was certain their team would win the divisional title. Based on the research into the emotional impact of unexpected outcomes, you should predict that, compared to Fernando, Isabelle will

a.	be more excited by Central High's win, because it was what she expected
b.	tend to overestimate Central High's chances for future victories
c.	be less excited by Central High's win, because it was what she expected
d.	tend to underestimate Central High's chances for future victories

150.

Premises are to conclusions as

a.	legs are to a table
b.	a pencil is to a pen
c.	a bird is to feathers
d.	a floppy disk is to a computer