Name: 
 

Exam I PY 101-008



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The person responsible for establishing psychology as an independent discipline with its own subject matter is
a.
G. Stanley Hall
b.
René Descartes
c.
William James
d.
Wilhelm Wundt
 

 2. 

The first two major schools of psychology were
a.
behaviorism and psychoanalysis
b.
functionalism and behaviorism
c.
structuralism and functionalism
d.
behaviorism and Gestalt psychology
 

 3. 

The school of psychology that focused on identifying and examining the fundamental components of conscious experience, such as sensations, feelings, and images was
a.
humanism
b.
behaviorism
c.
structuralism
d.
functionalism
 

 4. 

Melissa is participating in a study in which she is asked to carefully observe and report her conscious reactions to several stimuli. Melissa is most likely participating in a study conducted by a
a.
humanist psychologist
b.
behaviorist psychologist
c.
structuralist psychologist
d.
psychoanalytic psychologist
 

 5. 

William James, who was a pioneer in the development of functionalism, was most heavily influenced by
a.
Charles Darwin
b.
Sigmund Freud
c.
John Watson
d.
B. F. Skinner
 

 6. 

The psychologist who proposed that the study of consciousness should be replaced by the study of behavior was
a.
John B. Watson
b.
Abraham Maslow
c.
G. Stanley Hall
d.
Sigmund Freud
 

 7. 

Strict behaviorists would be most sympathetic to which one of the following statements?
a.
Human behavior is primarily caused by inherited factors.
b.
Human behavior is primarily caused by environmental factors.
c.
Human behavior is primarily caused by equal contributions of inherited and environmental factors.
d.
No one really knows what the primary causes for human behavior are.
 

 8. 

Response is to stimulus as
a.
pain is to cut
b.
light is to moth
c.
joke is to laugh
d.
pen is to paper
 

 9. 

Lynelle is crying because her brother just punched her in the arm. Lynelle's mother asks her what she did just before she was punched. In looking for a link between her daughter's actions and her son's response to those actions, Lynelle's mother is using the type of analysis that would be typical in
a.
the structuralist approach to the study of psychology
b.
the functionalist approach to the study of psychology
c.
the behaviorist approach to the study of psychology
d.
the psychoanalytic approach to the study of psychology
 

 10. 

Which of the following statements BEST reflects the main advantage of conducting psychological research with animals?
a.
It is much cheaper to conduct research on animals than on humans.
b.
In their biological makeup, animals are fundamentally similar to humans.
c.
With research on animals, there are no ethical issues to be concerned with.
d.
A researcher can exert more control over an animal than over a human subject.
 

 11. 

The major departure of Freud's position from prevailing viewpoints around the early 1900s was that he
a.
saw abnormal behavior as resulting from biological causes
b.
saw people as not fully aware of the forces that control their behavior
c.
proposed the existence of free will
d.
emphasized environmental forces on behavior
 

 12. 

"Organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes, and they tend not to repeat responses that lead to neutral or negative outcomes." These words would most likely have been said by
a.
Wilhelm Wundt
b.
William James
c.
B. F. Skinner
d.
Abraham Maslow
 

 13. 

Margaret is an industrial psychologist who advises companies on how to improve worker morale. As a psychologist who attempts to solve practical problems, Margaret would most likely be considered
a.
an academic psychologist
b.
an applied psychologist
c.
a behavioral psychologist
d.
a humanistic psychologist
 

 14. 

A clinical psychologist would probably be most interested in
a.
determining how small groups make decisions
b.
studying facial expressions of emotion
c.
figuring out the most effective ways of treating anxiety
d.
studying the nature of optical illusions
 

 15. 

The research psychologists who are most likely to conduct research studies using animals are those who have
a.
a behavioral or biological perspective
b.
a behavioral or psychoanalytic perspective
c.
a biological or psychoanalytic perspective
d.
a psychoanalytic or cognitive perspective
 

 16. 

The approach that examines behavioral processes in terms of their adaptive value for a species over the course of many generations is
a.
clinical psychology
b.
cognitive psychology
c.
evolutionary psychology
d.
physiological psychology
 

 17. 

Which of the following early psychologists would be most likely to endorse the tenets of evolutionary psychology?
a.
Sigmund Freud
b.
William James
c.
John Watson
d.
Wilhelm Wundt
 

 18. 

Currently a large proportion of the American population is overweight. Dr. Laker thinks that, in part, this may be due to an innate preference for foods that are rich in fats and sugars. Dr. Laker has suggested that in times when foods were not so readily available, this innate preference would ensure enough calories for energy and survival. Dr. Laker's views are most consistent with those of the
a.
cultural perspective in psychology
b.
cognitive perspective in psychology
c.
behavioral perspective in psychology
d.
evolutionary perspective in psychology
 

 19. 

Some researchers have suggested that people currently tend to sleep during periods of darkness because sleeping under these conditions was an adaptive behavior that helped to increase survival among early humans. This is the type of argument that would most likely be made by psychologists who take the
a.
cognitive perspective in psychology
b.
evolutionary perspective in psychology
c.
biological perspective in psychology
d.
behavioral perspective in psychology
 

 20. 

Which of the following statements BEST reflects the current thinking about evolutionary psychology?
a.
It is a widely accepted approach to the study of human behavior.
b.
It is a simplistic rehash of ideas proposed by Charles Darwin over 140 years ago.
c.
It is a radical perspective supported by a small group of "revolutionary" scientists.
d.
It is a thought-provoking, innovative perspective that is rapidly gaining influence.
 

 21. 

Of all doctoral degrees awarded in the sciences and humanities, psychology accounts for about
a.
5%
b.
10%
c.
20%
d.
50%
 

 22. 

A psychologist whose major interest focuses on how behavior changes as a function of age would probably be considered a
a.
physiological psychologist
b.
developmental psychologist
c.
social psychologist
d.
cognitive psychologist
 

 23. 

Which of the following areas is LEAST likely to be considered an applied area of psychology?
a.
industrial psychology
b.
clinical psychology
c.
educational psychology
d.
developmental psychology
 

 24. 

Which of the following is a medical doctor who specializes in diagnosing and treating mental disorders?
a.
a clinical psychologist
b.
a counseling psychologist
c.
a psychiatrist
d.
a physiological psychologist
 

 25. 

Empiricism refers to a
a.
school of psychology
b.
sub-field of psychology
c.
position on how information should be acquired
d.
theoretical orientation about life
 

 26. 

Which of the following BEST describes what a theory is?
a.
an explanation of unobservable phenomena
b.
a system of interrelated ideas used to explain some observation
c.
a string of unrelated observations
d.
related speculations that are based on common sense
 

 27. 

Which of the following is NOT a reason for psychology's theoretical diversity?
a.
One theory does not adequately cover the variety of data we have today.
b.
Different theories focus on different aspects of behavior.
c.
"Facts" lend themselves to different interpretations.
d.
Psychology lacks adequate objective data to support theory.
 

 28. 

Zoe believes that Samantha has trouble forming long-term relationships because her parents were overly strict during Samantha's toilet training. This type of explanation for Samantha's current behavior is inconsistent with the view that
a.
heredity and the environment jointly influence behavior
b.
behavior is determined by multiple causes
c.
behavior is shaped by cultural heritage
d.
perception is often subjective
 

 29. 

Which of the following statements about the concept of cultural heritage is LEAST accurate?
a.
It can be applied to small as well as to large groups.
b.
Much of one's cultural heritage is invisible.
c.
It can influence educational success and physical health.
d.
We generally feel a need to discuss our cultural heritage with others.
 

 30. 

The scientific method is designed to
a.
utilize subjectivity
b.
counteract subjectivity
c.
ignore subjectivity
d.
enhance subjectivity
 

 31. 

Which of the following is NOT listed in the textbook as an effective study technique?
a.
Set up a schedule for studying.
b.
Study in a place where distractions are minimal.
c.
Concentrate your study time immediately before an exam.
d.
Break major assignments down into smaller component tasks.
 

 32. 

Which of the following is NOT one of the "Rs" in the SQ3R method of studying?
a.
review
b.
remember
c.
recite
d.
read
 

 33. 

Which of the following conclusions is supported by research comparing "successful" to "unsuccessful" students?
a.
Successful students and unsuccessful students attended class equally often.
b.
Paradoxically, successful students attended class less often than unsuccessful students.
c.
Successful students attended class more often than unsuccessful students.
d.
Successful students used an instructor's office hours more than students.
 

 34. 

Research findings indicate that when changing answers on a multiple-choice test, most people change
a.
a right answer to a wrong answer
b.
a wrong answer to a right answer
c.
a wrong answer to another wrong answer
d.
a right answer to a wrong answer and back again to the right answer
 

 35. 

In the 19th century, Wilhelm Wundt attempted to shape the new discipline of psychology along the lines of physics, because in his era physics was admired as a "model" science. Wundt's attempt to imitate physics illustrates which of the textbook's unifying themes?
a.
Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
b.
Psychology is theoretically diverse.
c.
Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
d.
Behavior is determined by multiple causes.
 

 36. 

Hypotheses are typically expressed as
a.
theories
b.
variables
c.
predictions
d.
statistics
 

 37. 

Dr. Malm predicts that if teachers ignore students who act up in class, fewer students will act up in class. Dr. Malm's prediction is an example of
a.
an operational definition
b.
a theory
c.
inferential statistics
d.
a hypothesis
 

 38. 

When subjects are administered a series of written questions designed to assess their attitudes, opinions, or behavior, this is called
a.
direct observation
b.
a questionnaire
c.
an interview
d.
a psychological test
 

 39. 

Laura answered a series of written questions that asked about her attitudes and opinions on a number of current issues. The method of data collection that was being used in this case was
a.
a standardized psychological test
b.
archival research
c.
direct observation
d.
a questionnaire
 

 40. 

Differing approaches to the observation, measurement, manipulation, and control of variables in empirical studies are referred to as
a.
validity operationalizations
b.
research methods
c.
inductive techniques
d.
statistical analyses
 

 41. 

A group of researchers wanted to determine whether children would behave more aggressively after watching violent television programming. Half the children in the study watched a violent television show; the other children watched a non-violent television program. In this study, the control group is the children who
a.
behave the most aggressively at the end of the study
b.
watch the non-violent program
c.
watch the violent show
d.
behave the least aggressively at the end of the study
 

 42. 

In descriptive/correlational research, the investigator
a.
systematically observes two variables to see whether there is an association between them
b.
manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether there are changes in a second variable as a result
c.
exposes subjects to two closely related treatment conditions
d.
simultaneously manipulates two or more independent variables
 

 43. 

Recording all instances of an event for a particular time period (such as how many times an older brother strikes his younger brother) without the subjects' awareness is an example of
a.
compiling a case study
b.
correlational research
c.
conducting an experiment
d.
naturalistic observation
 

 44. 

You are sitting on a park bench in a major metropolitan area from 7 a.m. to 7 p.m. and you note the number of people who walk by, whether or not they litter, and their gender. You are engaging in
a.
casual observation
b.
naturalistic observation
c.
case study research
d.
experimental research
 

 45. 

One advantage of naturalistic observation is that it
a.
approximates the experimental method
b.
allows for cause-and-effect conclusions to be drawn
c.
allows behavior to be studied in realistic settings
d.
involves random assignment
 

 46. 

NASA wanted to know if extended periods of weightlessness would have an impact on long-term circulatory function. The agency located seven former astronauts who had spent more than one month in space under conditions of weightlessness, and tested all aspects of their cardiovascular function. NASA's research with these seven astronauts would be considered to be
a.
survey research
b.
experimental research
c.
correlational research
d.
case study research
 

 47. 

The mode in a group of scores describes the _______________ for that group of scores.
a.
central tendency
b.
association with another group of scores
c.
halfway point
d.
variability
 

 48. 

Charley tells you that 17 out of the 30 students enrolled in his English class scored exactly 62 points on the last exam. Conceptually, this is the same as saying
a.
the mean for that particular English exam was 62 points
b.
the median for that particular English exam was 62 points
c.
the standard deviation for that particular English exam was 62 points
d.
the mode for that particular English exam was 62 points
 

 49. 

Suppose a researcher discovered a strong negative correlation between the length of people's hair and the amount of money they paid for their automobile. In general, people who paid the least amount of money for their automobile also had
a.
the longest hair
b.
mid-length hair
c.
the shortest hair
d.
either extremely long or extremely short hair
 

 50. 

Dr. Zelke surveys 50 university students to discover the relationship between textbook price and ratings of readability. Dr. Zelke finds that for these two variables the correlation coefficient is -0.70. This indicates that
a.
more expensive books tend to receive higher readability ratings than less expensive books
b.
there is no relationship between textbook price and ratings of readability
c.
increasing a textbooks price will cause a decrease in its readability rating
d.
more expensive books tend to receive lower readability ratings than less expensive books
 

 51. 

By definition, a sample
a.
is that group of people to whom the conclusion of the study will apply
b.
is a subset of the population who actually participate in a research study
c.
contains less than 50 people or animals
d.
must only include volunteers who express an interest in the study
 

 52. 

Sampling bias is a problem because it
a.
limits the generality of the findings
b.
makes it impossible to use inferential statistics
c.
makes it difficult to avoid a confounding of variables
d.
makes the effect of the independent variable appear to be bigger than it really is
 

 53. 

Dr. Stillingsworth is interested in people's reactions to a controversial jury verdict. Dr. Stillingsworth calls people at their home between the hours of 1:00 p.m. and 3:30 p.m. on a Tuesday afternoon. In this example Dr. Stillingsworth has most likely selected
a.
a representative sample
b.
a biased population
c.
a biased sample
d.
a statistically significant population
 

 54. 

The social desirability bias is a tendency to answer questions about oneself
a.
by agreeing with nearly every statement
b.
by disagreeing with nearly every statement
c.
in a socially approved manner
d.
in a socially disapproved manner
 

 55. 

Subjects' self-reports often indicate that they are healthier, happier, and less prejudiced than other types of evidence would suggest. The MOST likely explanation is
a.
experimenter bias
b.
faulty memory
c.
the social desirability bias
d.
a tendency to agree with almost every statement
 

 56. 

Melvin and Leigh are interviewing students at their campus to determine if the students agree or disagree with a proposed policy change. Melvin believes the proposed policy change is a good idea, but Leigh believes the change will be bad for students. Nearly all the students who Melvin interviewed supported the policy change, but nearly all the students who Leigh interviewed disapproved of the change. The differences in the results illustrate the potential impact of
a.
the placebo effect
b.
double-blind research studies
c.
confounded dependent variables
d.
experimenter bias
 

 57. 

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a.
Deception has never been used in psychological research.
b.
Although deception has been used in the past, it has recently been banned by the American Psychological Association.
c.
In recent years, there has been a steady increase in the use of deception in psychological research.
d.
Deception has been fairly common in psychological research since the 1960s.
 

 58. 

The fact that subjects sometimes report beneficial effects from a placebo treatment illustrates which of your text's unifying themes?
a.
Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
b.
Psychology is empirical.
c.
Heredity and environment jointly influence behavior.
d.
Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
 

 59. 

The hypotheses for a research study are most likely to be found in the
a.
methodology section of a journal article
b.
reference section of a journal article
c.
results section of a journal article
d.
introduction section of a journal article
 

 60. 

The basic parts of a neuron are
a.
vesicles, terminal buttons, synapses
b.
cell body, axon, dendrites
c.
myelin, nodes, axon terminals
d.
hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain
 

 61. 

The electrical charge that exists between the inside and the outside of a neuron when the neuron is neither receiving nor sending is approximately
a.
-1000 millivolts
b.
+60 to +70 millivolts
c.
-60 to -70 millivolts
d.
+1000 millivolts
 

 62. 

Bradley is deeply relaxed and his muscles are not moving at all. This suggests that, for Bradley's motor neurons
a.
sodium ions are concentrated inside the neurons and potassium ions are concentrated outside the neurons
b.
sodium ions and potassium ions are both concentrated inside the neurons
c.
sodium ions and potassium ions are both concentrated outside the neurons
d.
sodium ions are concentrated outside the neurons and potassium ions are concentrated inside the neurons
 

 63. 

Nicotine functions as an agonist when it
a.
stimulates some of the acetylcholine synapses
b.
inhibits some of the acetylcholine synapses
c.
occupies the acetylcholine receptor sites, thus blocking the action of the neurotransmitter
d.
prevents the release of acetylcholine into the synapse, thus blocking the action of the neurotransmitter
 

 64. 

The movement of voluntary skeletal muscles involved in doing calisthenics is under the control of the
a.
somatic nervous system
b.
parasympathetic nervous system
c.
sympathetic nervous system
d.
autonomic nervous system
 

 65. 

Jonathan took some medication for his flu symptoms. Later, Jonathan began to feel a little faint because medication caused his heart to beat more slowly and his blood pressure to fall. It is likely that the medication increased activity in Jonathan's
a.
hippocampus
b.
parasympathetic nervous system
c.
somatic nervous system
d.
sympathetic nervous system
 

 66. 

The enclosing sheaths that protect the brain and spinal cord are referred to as
a.
meninges
b.
glia
c.
ventricles
d.
cerebrospinal sheaths
 

 67. 

The __________ fluid nourishes the brain and provides a protective cushion for it.
a.
amniotic
b.
cerebrospinal
c.
parasympathetic
d.
somatic
 

 68. 

Which of the following techniques is likely to be most useful for locating specific neurotransmitter substances in the brain?
a.
computerized tomography
b.
positron emission tomography
c.
magnetic resonance imaging
d.
electrographic tomography
 

 69. 

The hindbrain structure involved with sleep and arousal is the
a.
hypothalamus
b.
cerebrum
c.
thalamus
d.
pons
 

 70. 

Greg was a world-class diver until he hit his head on the diving board during one of his dives. He now has difficulty coordinating the movements required for various tucks and rotations. It is likely that when he hit his head on the diving board, Greg damaged his
a.
cerebellum
b.
reticular formation
c.
amygdala
d.
temporal lobe
 

 71. 

Research by Olds and Milner (1954) identified a "pleasure center" in rat brains. Rats will press a lever thousands of times as long as a small electric current stimulates
a.
the brainstem
b.
the corpus callosum
c.
the hypothalamus
d.
the frontal lobe of the occipital cortex
 

 72. 

The brain structure which is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such as thinking and philosophizing is the
a.
corpus callosum
b.
cerebrum
c.
cerebellum
d.
hypothalamus
 

 73. 

The lobe of the brain with primary responsibility for processing bodily sensations is the
a.
parietal lobe
b.
occipital lobe
c.
frontal lobe
d.
thalamic lobe
 

 74. 

Damage to the temporal lobe of the brain would probably be MOST harmful to the career of
a.
a musician
b.
an actor
c.
an architect
d.
a painter
 

 75. 

The most recent research investigating the brain's plasticity suggests that
a.
the plasticity of the brain is unlimited; it is our ability to measure it that is limited
b.
the brain's plasticity and flexibility increases with age
c.
the neural wiring of the brain is flexible and constantly evolving
d.
after infancy, new neurons only form in the left hemisphere of the brain
 

 76. 

The main reason for the characterization of the left hemisphere as the "dominant" hemisphere was
a.
the evidence that the left hemisphere usually processes language
b.
the evidence that the left hemisphere usually processes complex information
c.
the fact that the majority of people are right-handed
d.
that split-brain patients use only their left hemisphere for processing information
 

 77. 

Because the speech center is generally located in the left hemisphere of the brain, a split-brain patient is unable to describe stimuli that are
a.
seen in the left visual field
b.
seen in the right visual field
c.
presented directly in front of him or her
d.
felt with the right hand
 

 78. 

The endocrine system
a.
connects the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain
b.
secretes hormones
c.
manufactures myelin
d.
forms the basis of reflexive behaviors
 

 79. 

Much of the endocrine system is controlled by the nervous system through the
a.
medulla
b.
hypothalamus
c.
thalamus
d.
cerebellum
 

 80. 

The fact that Maria was a little later than her sisters in going through puberty can be attributed to the action of her
a.
gonads
b.
adrenal glands
c.
thyroid glands
d.
pancreas
 

 81. 

The interdisciplinary field that studies the influence of genetic factors and behavioral traits is called
a.
ethology
b.
cross-cultural anthropology
c.
physiological psychology
d.
behavioral genetics
 

 82. 

A person's genotype refers to his or her
a.
observable characteristics and traits
b.
being dominated by the paternal contribution to genetic makeup
c.
being dominated by the maternal contribution to genetic makeup
d.
genetic makeup
 

 83. 

It appears that most human characteristics are influenced by
a.
a single gene
b.
a single pair of genes
c.
the father's genetic endowment more than the mother's
d.
more than one pair of genes
 

 84. 

Stephanie and her four sisters are all artistically inclined and enjoy working on creative projects. When she meets her three cousins for the first time, Stephanie is somewhat surprised to find that none of them have any interest at all in art. The differences between Stephanie's sisters and her cousins could be used as evidence to suggest that
a.
environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in artistic interest
b.
both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to artistic interest
c.
neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to artistic interest
d.
genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in artistic interest
 

 85. 

As far as we know, in humans the same genotype
a.
only occurs in fraternal twins
b.
only occurs in identical twins
c.
only occurs in dizygotic twins
d.
never occurs, even in twins
 

 86. 

In most mammalian species, the parental investment of males is often limited to
a.
nourishing of the offspring
b.
the act of copulation
c.
defense of the home territory
d.
hunting for food
 

 87. 

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
a.
a neuromodulator
b.
an EEG
c.
a CT scan
d.
a stereotaxic instrument
 

 88. 

If a 100-Hz tone had to be increased to 110 Hz for a subject to just notice the difference, you would predict that a 1000-Hz tone would have to be increased to
a.
1010 to be noticed
b.
1050 to be noticed
c.
1100 to be noticed
d.
1200 to be noticed
 

 89. 

In the signal-detection method, if a subject detects a stimulus when no stimulus is actually present, this would be a
a.
hit
b.
miss
c.
false alarm
d.
correct rejection
 

 90. 

Jacob has been working at his computer for the past 2 hours, and the hum that he found so annoying when he started no longer bothers him. The change in Jacob's sensitivity to the noise from the computer illustrates the process known as
a.
perceptual invariance
b.
perceptual assimilation
c.
adjusting just noticeable differences
d.
sensory adaptation
 

 91. 

If the human eye was not responsive to differences in the amplitude of light waves, we would not be able to perceive differences in
a.
saturation
b.
purity
c.
color
d.
brightness
 

 92. 

Devin looked directly into a very bright light and damaged his retina. The ophthalmologist has told him that he has sustained massive damage to his rods, but for the most part his cones have not been affected. One change that you could predict for Devin's vision is that he will now have
a.
no color vision
b.
poor vision in bright illumination
c.
poor peripheral vision
d.
more accurate depth perception
 

 93. 

Our visual acuity will be best when a ganglion cell
a.
transmits its neural signal directly to the visual cortex
b.
has a small receptive field
c.
has a large receptive field
d.
transmits its neural signal to the cerebellum, instead of the visual cortex
 

 94. 

If the parvocellular system within the thalamus was not functioning correctly, you might expect that a person would have difficulty
a.
distinguishing colors
b.
detecting movement
c.
localizing sounds
d.
perceiving depth
 

 95. 

If you project a red, a green, and a blue light into space, the point at which the three lights cross will lead to the perception of
a.
black light
b.
ultraviolet light
c.
white light
d.
infrared light
 

 96. 

A perceptual set implies that
a.
people often see what they expect to see
b.
visual perception is based on a bottom-up processing strategy
c.
feature analysis is a "hard-wired" process
d.
the focused-attention stage of processing is often overridden by preattentive processes
 

 97. 

Vanessa describes a new melody that she heard at a concert by telling you each of the individual notes, in the order that they were played. In providing this type of description, it appears that Vanessa processed the melody using
a.
top-down processing
b.
figure-ground processing
c.
opponent-processes
d.
bottom-up processing
 

 98. 

The successive blinking on and off of the lights on the neon sign gave the impression of beer filling a glass. This illusion of motion is the
a.
phi phenomenon
b.
constancy principle
c.
common-fate principle
d.
motion parallax effect
 

 99. 

Zachary is looking at a reversible figure, which first appears to be a vase, and then appears to be two faces. His perception of the figure keeps switching between these two interpretations. This switching perception is caused by the fact that
a.
reversible figures cause people to experience the phi phenomenon
b.
the Gestalt principle of simplicity doesn't work for reversible figures
c.
The Gestalt principles of proximity and closure are both at work in reversible figures
d.
the figure-ground distinction in reversible figures is often ambiguous
 

 100. 

Paintings or drawings that lead to ambiguous interpretations often invert the
a.
figure and ground
b.
sensation and perception
c.
top and bottom
d.
open processing and closed processing
 

 101. 

Amanda had an operation on her eyes, but the doctors were unable to save the vision in her left eye. One major change that will affect Amanda's perception is the fact that she will
a.
no longer have any perception of depth
b.
be more likely to misinterpret perceptual illusions
c.
no longer be able to utilize binocular depth cues
d.
lose her ability to perceive colors accurately
 

 102. 

As Briana drove down the highway, the pickets of the fences moved past her in a blur, but the mountains in the distance didn't appear to move at all. Briana was experiencing
a.
the pictorial cue for depth called texture gradient
b.
the binocular cue for depth called convergence
c.
the binocular cue for depth called retinal disparity
d.
the monocular cue for depth called motion parallax
 

 103. 

The sand at Jason feet appeared coarse, and he could see the individual grains of sand. However, the sand down the beach appeared to be much finer and less granular. This apparent difference in the sand may have partially resulted from the depth cue of
a.
interposition
b.
light and shadow
c.
relative size
d.
texture gradient
 

 104. 

In their research investigating the perception of geographical slant, Proffitt and his colleagues (1995) found that participants tended to overestimate
a.
steepness when standing at the bottom of hills but not when standing at the top of hills
b.
steepness when standing at the top of hills but not when standing at the bottom of hills
c.
steepness whether standing at the bottom or at the top of hills
d.
the steepness of inclines in the lab but not the steepness of actual hills
 

 105. 

Carmella is at a water park. She watches several sliders ride the "Max" and decides to try it for herself. Based on the work by Proffitt and his colleagues, you might predict that when she gets to the top, Carmella will
a.
ride the slide because it will appear less steep from the top than it did from the bottom
b.
ride the slide because it will appear shorter from the top than it did from the bottom
c.
have second thoughts because the slide will appear longer from the top than it did from the bottom
d.
have second thoughts because the slide will appear steeper from the top than it did from the bottom
 

 106. 

Perceptual constancy refers to
a.
the same thing as functional fixedness
b.
our perception of objects remaining stable despite the fact that sensory information changes
c.
the existence of schemas that guide our perceptions
d.
visual fields in the retina that allow our perception of the world to remain stable
 

 107. 

Three-year-old Kevin was flying in a plane for the first time. As the plane descended for its landing Kevin became very excited at all the toy houses and cars he saw, and he couldn't wait for the plane to land so he could play with the toys. Kevin's misinterpretation of the true size of the houses and cars the plane passed over shows that he is still not fully utilizing
a.
binocular depth cues
b.
linear perspective
c.
size constancy
d.
visual accommodation
 

 108. 

The moon illusion occurs when you
a.
perceive the moon to be smaller on the horizon than overhead
b.
perceive the moon to be larger on the horizon than overhead
c.
perceive the moon to be the same size when viewed on the horizon and overhead
d.
think you see the moon when in fact it is not there
 

 109. 

The structure of the ear that transduces sound vibrations into nerve impulses is the
a.
cochlea
b.
oval window
c.
temporal lobe
d.
stirrup
 

 110. 

The retina is to the eye as the
a.
eardrum is to the ear
b.
ossicles are to the ear
c.
pinna is to the ear
d.
cochlea is to the ear
 

 111. 

Imagine the basilar membrane in the human ear were longer. Based on place theory, you might expect that humans would be able to
a.
hear a wider range of sounds, especially high frequency sounds
b.
hear a wider range of sounds, especially low frequency sounds
c.
detect sound waves that had a lower amplitude
d.
localize sounds more accurately
 

 112. 

The theory of hearing that views the basilar membrane as being like a drumhead is
a.
place theory
b.
timpani theory
c.
frequency theory
d.
opponent process theory
 

 113. 

The volley principle suggests that
a.
spreading effects from one semicircular canal to another interact to produce pitch perception for frequencies higher than 5,000 Hz
b.
ossicles of the middle ear "echo" or "volley" auditory transmission back and forth to stimulate hair cells
c.
sound localization is an interpretation of time discrepancies between the time when the same sound reaches each ear
d.
groups of auditory neurons are able fire neural impulses in rapid succession, sending signals that exceed the firing rate of any single neuron
 

 114. 

Pitch perception can best be explained by __________ for very low-pitched sounds, __________ for very high-pitched sounds, and __________ for pitches in the middle range.
a.
place theory; frequency theory; place theory
b.
frequency theory; both theories; place theory
c.
place theory; both theories; frequency theory
d.
frequency theory; place theory; both theories
 

 115. 

Our sense of smell shows evidence of sensory adaptation. The perceived strength of an odor usually
a.
fades to less than half its original strength within about four minutes
b.
increases to more than twice its original strength within about four minutes
c.
fades to less than half its original strength within a few seconds
d.
slowly increases over time, reaching a maximum in about 15 minutes
 

 116. 

The pathway for pain that results in the experience of pain being less localized and longer lasting is the
a.
thalamic pathway
b.
endorphin pathway
c.
slow pathway
d.
generic pathway
 

 117. 

Catelin has had a slow throbbing pain in her ankle since she twisted it roller blading last week. These pain signals are traveling along
a.
ungated endorphin pathways in the hypothalamus
b.
thin, unmyelinated C fibers
c.
thick, myelinated A-delta fibers
d.
periacqueductal gray neurons in the midbrain
 

 118. 

Cutting fibers in the neural pathway leading away from the periacqueductal gray in the midbrain
a.
reduces the perception of pain
b.
enhances the effects of morphine and other opiate drugs
c.
increases the perception of pain
d.
causes the release of endorphins
 

 119. 

The kinesthetic system relates to
a.
maintaining the relative position of body parts
b.
the location of the body in space
c.
the sense of forward acceleration
d.
sensing body movement, as in a car
 

 120. 

The fact that many Americans might be reluctant to try the Japanese delicacy of raw fish illustrates which of your text's unifying themes?
a.
Psychology is empirical.
b.
Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c.
Behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
d.
Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
 

 121. 

According to recent research, we are MOST likely to fall asleep
a.
as our body temperature begins to drop
b.
when it gets dark
c.
when our body temperature stabilizes at normal
d.
as our body temperature begins to climb
 

 122. 

Which of the following instruments is NOT usually used to monitor sleep in the laboratory?
a.
EEG
b.
EMG
c.
PET
d.
EOG
 

 123. 

Rebecca is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. As the researcher watches the printout from the EEG, delta waves appear. Based on this information, the researcher can conclude that Rebecca
a.
has just entered Stage 1 sleep
b.
is still awake, but is relaxed and drowsy
c.
is currently in REM sleep
d.
has just entered Stage 3 sleep
 

 124. 

An electroencephalograph (EEG) is recording Joseph's brain activity, and the recording is currently dominated by delta waves. Unexpectedly, there is a loud crash in the sleep lab. It is likely
a.
the crash will wake Joseph from his relatively light sleep
b.
there will be a sleep spindle recorded on the EEG at the time of the crash
c.
the noise of the crash will be incorporated into the dream Joseph is currently experiencing
d.
there will be no change in the EEG, and Joseph's sleep will not be interrupted
 

 125. 

Bailey is hooked up to an electroencephalograph (EEG) in a sleep lab. She has been asleep for just over an hour now, and her EEG is showing low amplitude, irregular brain wave patterns. Her breathing and pulse rate are irregular, and her eyes are darting back and forth beneath her closed eyelids. The researcher who is monitoring Bailey's sleep can conclude that Bailey
a.
has just entered REM sleep
b.
has just entered Stage 4 sleep
c.
is experiencing sleep anoxia and needs immediate medical attention
d.
suffers from a sleep disorder
 

 126. 

Christopher is sixteen and he is visiting his grandfather for the weekend. If you could compare EEG recordings from Christopher's sleep and from his grandfather's sleep you should expect that
a.
his grandfather will sleep less than Christopher, but both will spend about 20% of their sleep time in REM sleep
b.
both these individuals will sleep for the same length of time, but Christopher's grandfather will spend substantially more time in REM sleep
c.
both these individuals will sleep for the same length of time, but Christopher's grandfather will spend substantially less time in REM sleep
d.
his grandfather will sleep less than Christopher, and also experience proportionately less REM sleep
 

 127. 

Which of the following statements about napping practices is NOT accurate?
a.
Napping practices vary along cultural lines.
b.
Industrialization tends to undermine the siesta tradition.
c.
The siesta tradition is found mostly in tropical regions.
d.
The siesta tradition is generally found in most nomadic groups.
 

 128. 

For the past month Mitchell has had difficulty falling asleep at night. Even though he goes to bed at his usual time, he lays awake for several hours before he finally drifts off to sleep. As a result, Mitchell has only been getting 5 to 6 hours of sleep, instead of the 8 hours he is used to. Mitchell is likely to find that his lack of sleep leads to
a.
the inability to solve complex problems
b.
impaired attention, especially on monotonous task
c.
hallucinations and general disorientation
d.
night terrors when he actually does fall asleep
 

 129. 

While serving as a subject at a sleep clinic, Erica is deprived of dreaming for several nights. As a result, she is likely to
a.
experience REM rebound and spend more time in REM sleep on subsequent nights
b.
become accustomed to going without dreaming and spend less time in REM sleep on subsequent nights
c.
immediately return to a normal sleep cycle when she is allowed to sleep through the night
d.
have difficulty achieving REM on subsequent nights
 

 130. 

For the past two weeks Cameron has been taking a mild sedative to help him fall asleep. He is likely to find that
a.
he now needs to take a larger dose in order to fall asleep because over time sedatives become less effective
b.
he can take less of the drug because the effects of sedatives tend to be cumulative
c.
he will spend more of the night dreaming than he did without the sedative
d.
after two weeks his insomnia should be cured, and he can stop using the sedative
 

 131. 

Abruptly stopping the use of a sedative for the treatment of insomnia can lead to
a.
REM rebound
b.
narcolepsy
c.
microsleep
d.
rebound insomnia
 

 132. 

A disorder characterized by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking periods is
a.
epilepsy
b.
narcolepsy
c.
hypersomnia
d.
sleep agnosia
 

 133. 

The rare sleep disorder in which a person will, without warning, go directly from being awake into REM sleep is
a.
sleep apnea
b.
narcolepsy
c.
hypersomnia
d.
somnambulism
 

 134. 

Of the following statements regarding sleepwalking, which is MOST accurate?
a.
Sleepwalking occurs in REM sleep.
b.
It is not safe to awaken a sleepwalker.
c.
Sleepwalkers rarely hurt themselves.
d.
Sleepwalkers are not acting out a dream.
 

 135. 

Which of the following statements about dreams is NOT accurate?
a.
Dreams only occur during REM sleep.
b.
Dreams have sometimes changed the world.
c.
Dreams are not as bizarre as widely assumed.
d.
Dreamers sometimes realize that they are dreaming.
 

 136. 

According to Freud, a sexually frustrated person would probably have highly erotic dreams because, according to him, the principal purpose of a dream is
a.
sexual gratification
b.
conflict resolution
c.
wish fulfillment
d.
the repression of unconscious desires
 

 137. 

Robert experienced much severe punishment in childhood and, as a way to cope, he developed an active fantasy life. Robert would be a good candidate for
a.
hypnosis
b.
meditation
c.
insomnia research
d.
drug research
 

 138. 

Which of the following is NOT a common effect of hypnosis?
a.
auditory and visual hallucinations
b.
the reduction of inhibitions
c.
some resistance to pain
d.
total loss of personal control
 

 139. 

Dissociation refers to
a.
a loss of inhibition by hypnotized subjects
b.
a hypnotized subject's willingness to act out the hypnotist's suggestions
c.
a splitting of mental processes into two separate, simultaneous streams of awareness
d.
role playing by hypnotized subjects in response to situational cues
 

 140. 

Hailey recently began meditating on a regular basis. Over the short-term Hailey should expect to experience
a.
an alteration in her consciousness similar to taking psychedelic drugs
b.
an increase in relaxation and a decrease in autonomic arousal
c.
a sense of euphoria similar to that experienced when taking opiate drugs
d.
an improvement in her immune system and enhanced memory
 

 141. 

Jackson broke his back when he fell off the roof. He was in a tremendous amount of pain while he was in the hospital. To help him deal with the pain while his back healed, Jackson's physician most likely prescribed
a.
tranquilizers
b.
amphetamines
c.
opiate-based drugs
d.
hallucinogens
 

 142. 

Seymour used to get quite a "buzz" from his first cup of coffee in the morning. Now he finds that he doesn't start to feel alert until his third cup. This suggests that Seymour
a.
has developed a caffeine dependency
b.
has developed a drug tolerance for caffeine
c.
is experiencing the effects of caffeine withdrawal
d.
has become caffeine intolerant
 

 143. 

Among the following, which drug tends to produce tolerance most SLOWLY?
a.
narcotics
b.
stimulants
c.
sedatives
d.
alcohol
 

 144. 

For which of the following drugs does the tolerance level develop the most RAPIDLY?
a.
cannabis
b.
sedatives
c.
alcohol
d.
hallucinogens
 

 145. 

Dr. Montgomery has developed a new drug that blocks the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine. It is likely that this drug will
a.
function as a sedative
b.
have stimulant effects in the body
c.
produce hallucinogenic effects
d.
act as an effective pain killer
 

 146. 

One state that has a "right to die" law allows terminally ill patients to take an overdose of barbiturate drugs. When patients take the high dosage of drugs allowed they should expect
a.
that respiration will stop, producing a coma and eventual death
b.
several severe cortical seizures resulting in brain death in less than five minutes
c.
to experience a fatal heart attack or stroke within 30 minutes of taking the drugs
d.
damage to the liver causing death within 48 hours
 

 147. 

Lauren has been having trouble sleeping, and she decides to take a sedative to help her get a good night's sleep. The use of a sedative is likely to
a.
increase the amount of time she spends in both slow-wave and REM sleep
b.
increase the amount of time she spends in slow-wave sleep, but decrease her overall REM sleep
c.
decrease the amount of time she spends in both slow-wave and REM sleep
d.
increase the amount of time she spends in REM sleep, but decrease her overall slow-wave sleep
 

 148. 

Thinking clearly about the circumstances of your waking life while recognizing that you are dreaming is referred to as a
a.
latent dream
b.
lucid dream
c.
manifest dream
d.
confabulated dream
 

 149. 

Hunter was dreaming, but he knew that he was dreaming. During his dream he was able to control some of the events that occurred in the dream. In this case, Hunter is
a.
dreaming during Stage 4 of the sleep cycle
b.
having a theta-wave dream
c.
having a lucid dream
d.
experiencing pseudo-REM sleep
 

 150. 

Which of the following are generally associated with non-REM sleep?
a.
rapid eye movements
b.
dreams
c.
nightmares
d.
night terrors
 



 
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